In this Study I would like to elaborate on the deity of Christ as seen in this encounter. Before we do this, I would like to examine a couple of verses in the Gospel of John.
"Not that anyone has seen the Father except he who is from God; he has seen the Father."- John 6:46. ESV
When you read the eighteenth verse, of John 1 we see that No one has Seen God...Ever. But how can that be? Did God not appear to Ezekiel, Abraham, Moses and Isaiah? How can it be said that no one has seen God? It is simple, The full manifestation of God, as Father, Son and Holy Spirit has never been seen, and The Father is mentioned specifically in John 6:46, where Jesus Christ exclaimed to the Jews that only HE has seen The Father
The only God, (Jesus) who is at the Father's side, HE has made him known...The King James version states this as "the only begotten Son," but the meaning is the same, Jesus Christ, the only begotten Son, is the only one who has seen the Father. Then who manifested as God in the Old testament? A simple look at the Beginning of John makes this clear.
In the beginning was the word. And the word was with God And the word was God- John 1:1
Seeing that the Word was with God, and that that Word was Jesus Christ, verse 18 becomes clear. The Word, who was with God, and Was God, and became Flesh, HAS MADE HIM KNOWN.
In other words every manifestation of deity in the Bible, in BOTH the Old Testament, and New, was made by Jesus Christ. Now before you think I am taking a serious leap.. there is a theological term for this. It is Known as a "Christophany."
The definition of a Christophany is quite simple. It's the tangible appearance of Christ
Prior to the incarnation, (Old testament) and after the crucifixion. (New Testament)
Now this theological teaching does not come without controversy, as there is much dispute as to what actually constitutes a Christophany in the Old Testament. Yet the following verses show that the doctrine is definitely Biblical, and this brings to our passages in in Isaiah chapter 6.
That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake, Lord, who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed?
Therefore they could not believe, because that Esaias said again, He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.- John 12:39- 40
In other words, Jesus, is Jehovah of Hosts, and his appearance to Isaiah is an example of a Christophany.
Knowing this, it is logical to assume that anytime Jehovah of Hosts is mentioned in the Old Testament, it is referring to the pre-incarnate Christ.
Theologian Albert Barnes wrote concerning these passages in John chapter 12:
"John 12:41 When he saw his glory - Isa_6:1-10. Isaiah saw the Lord (in Hebrew, יהוה Yahweh) sitting on a throne and surrounded with the seraphim. This is perhaps the only instance in the Bible in which Yahweh is said to have been seen by man, and for this the Jews affirm that Isaiah was put to death. God had said Exo_33:20, “No man shall see me and live;” and as Isaiah affirmed that he had seen Yahweh, the Jews, for that and other reasons, put him to death by sawing him asunder. See Introduction to Isaiah, Section 2. In the prophecy Isaiah is said expressly to have seen Yahweh Joh_12:1; and in Joh_12:5, “Mine eyes have seen the King Yahweh of hosts.” By his glory is meant the manifestation of him - the Shechinah, or visible cloud that was a representation of God, and that rested over the mercy-seat. This was regarded as equivalent to seeing God, and John here expressly applies this to the Lord Jesus Christ; for he is not affirming that the people did not believe in God, but is assigning the reason why they believed not on Jesus Christ as the Messiah. The whole discourse has respect to the Lord Jesus, and the natural construction of the passage requires us to refer it to him. John affirms that it was the glory of the Messiah that Isaiah saw, and yet Isaiah affirms that it was Yahweh; and from this the inference is irresistible that John regarded Jesus as the Yahweh whom Isaiah saw. The name Yahweh is never, in the Scriptures, applied to a man, or an angel, or to any creature. It is the unique, incommunicable name of God. So great was the reverence of the Jews for that name that they would not even pronounce it. This passage is therefore conclusive proof that Christ is equal with the Father.- Barnes' New Testament Notes.
We see in these passages, a clear testimony to the deity of Jesus Christ.
So with clear direction that "Jehovah of Hosts" in Isaiah is the pre-incarnate Christ, it would be logical to assume that whenever the title "Jehovah of Hosts" is mentioned in the Old Testament, it is referring to Jesus Christ's as He interacts with His chosen people, the children of Israel.
There are many verses in the Old Testament referring to The LORD of Hosts in the Old Testament- (266 by my count) and time would not permit a thorough study within the confines of this post. However, I would like to examine one verse, that testifies to The Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ in His Glory.
Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.- Isa 44:6
In this time of total irreverence concerning Our Lord Jesus Christ, where every aspect of his Life is attacked by the unredeemed, it is good to have Bible truth, to show who he is. He is not a corporate marketing tool to sell garbage, and He is not some hippie dude you can call Homeboy.
He is "God, manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the











